Re: Why aren't the ovaries connected to the fallopian tubes?

Chris: What an insightful question! Of course the testis does attach to the tubular network leading to the urethra for sperm delivery. I don’t think any scientist could answer the WHY question of fallopian tube attachment not going directly to the ovary. Science has a miserable record for answering why-type questions. Some scientists will explain how something works and then state that WHY it is a particular way is because that is what works. This is circular reasoning and we call it a tautology. If you were taking a test in class and answered with a tautology you would get a zero if the teacher picked up on your technique. Sometimes tautologies are worded so that they sound pretty good. This is a technique some teachers call a “Snow Job”; a blizzard of white stuff with no form or substance. I say all this so that you will know that the words I am going to write are not really an answer to your question of why but only how the system works.

The ovary only ovulates (releases eggs) once per cycle, not continuously like with the male germ cells. It therefore relies on the expulsion of the oocyte from it’s follicle, the contraction of the fallopian tubes and the beating of the fimbriae to ensure proper delivery of the egg into the fallopian tube, so that it does not remain in the peritoneum where it is initially released.

A developing fetus has 2 pairs of genital ducts, the mullerian ducts (which will form female tubes) and wolffian ducts (which will form male tubes). At approximately the seventh week of development, the male genital system begins to differentiate. If a male (Y) sperm fertilizes the ovum, the wolffian ducts develop due to the synthesis and release of testosterone from the developing testis. At the same time Sertoli cells (nurse cells that develop in the seminiferous tubules along with the spermatozoa) also produce a mullerian inhibiting hormone, or anti-mullerian hormone (AMH) that causes regression of the mullerian ducts. The wolffian or mesonephric ducts open from the mesonephros (a secondary kidney) and drain these temporary kidneys. Under the influence of testosterone, the wolffian ducts proceed to convolute and develop from the mesonephros into the epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicle, and ejaculatory ducts. Lack of testis causes the regression of the wolffian ducts (because of the lack of testosterone) and allows for the formation of the female reproductive tract from the mullerian ducts which begins with it’s cranial (superior) end unfused. In the female, it is the lack of testis and not the presence of the ovary that suppresses the formation of the wolffian ducts and allows for the formation of the uterine tubes, uterus, and the superior one third of the vagina. Therefore the adult ovary must rely upon the female cycle, which at ovulation causes the contractions necessary to “suck” the embryo into the fallopian tube. Any malfunctioning of this system may cause problems that would make the female seek a physician. Ovulation of the oocyte into the peritoneum may lead to ectopic pregnancies (implantation of the embryo outside the uterus). In addition, contraction of the uterus may allow endothelial cells to enter the peritoneum, thus causing peritonitis, which is a very painful condition.

Thus the final answer to your question might be that physicians, who make so much money treating female reproductive problems, may have formed the committee that made this seemingly imperfect female reproductive system at the beginning (that's a joke). Actually, it works quite well and the 6 billion people on earth today are proof of that. Why the fallopian tube is not directly connected to the ovary I cannot say.